Anon, "So am I to understand that slavery should be accepted as polgamy should be accepted today? After all slavery was not condemnd in the bible, and just like the many men of God that had multiple wives, also had slaves. Slavery/Polgamy tradition or Truth?"
June 23, 2008 8:52 PM
Thanks for the question! That is a good observation. Both polygamy and slavery were political issues in the U.S.A. during the mid 1800's. Both were linked as evils by politicians to further their careers, much like politicians do today. Slavery was primarily directed toward southern farmers and polygamy was primarily directed toward the LDS church. The civil war was the result of the tirade on slavery and the LDS repealed their position on polygamy, with statehood for Utah as the result. People benefited in both cases. However, as you point out polygamy and slavery were both practiced by Godly men in the Bible. Do we also see that both were practiced by ungodly men and heathen as well?
Both polygamy and slavery, as allowed and regulated by God were much different than what resides in the consciousness of today's western world. We tend to think of both of these cases as being against the will of the individual. That is not the case in the Biblical, blessed sense. To properly understand what The Bible says about these issues, we must think outside our little boxes of smug convenience. Keep the character of God in view as we look into this matter at a future time.
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As I look at the creation account in Genesis 2, I read that God created male and female, created them in His image He did. He then joined them together as man and wife to multiply. I believe this indicates both God's view and purpose for marriage. It was His intention that marriage be between one man and one woman. If His intent had been different, I suggest He would have created multiple women for Adam. (after all he did have more ribs)
Well, imagine Adam having all of his ribs taken! Would that not have been a very "deflating" experience? :-)
But, seriously, is it possible to "second guess" God's intentions is doing this or that? Can one really say that God intended for all men to have only one wife, because He only created Eve from Adam's side?
We are clearly commanded to "be fruitful and multiply"; the woman (as Paul has put it - he did not say "Eve") was created to be a help for the man to whom she is given as wife. Now it is simply a fact that a man can be more fuitful, if he has more than one wife; indeed, if he has more than one wife, he has a greated number of helps, and one should not forget that the wives can also support one another in fulfilling their tasks.
Further, if it had been God's intent that men be "allowed" only one wife, why would He then not forbid polygyny in His Law. Adultery was most definitely never His intent ("the two shall become one flesh"), and we have a commandment forbidding it, too. Remember, His Law is described in His Word as being holy, just, righteous and perfect - a sure guide for those desiring to do right; nonetheless, polygyny is most definitely not forbidden. No, quite the contrary, for there are some commandments which regulate polygyny and there are some which under certain circumstances could even enjoin it.
You know, God does not change, consequently neither does that which is right or wrong. If God's Law did not forbid polygyny (which it does not) but regulates it and even enjoins it (under certain circumstances) and He declares His Law perfect (which He does), then He never intended to demonstrate anything about the number of wives which a man may have when He made for Adam only one wife from his rib.
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